Hi all:

I thought it would be interesting get your thoughts on this.

John 17:26
And I have declared your NAME unto them and will declare, That the love wherewith you have loved me may be in them and I in them.

Correct me if I'm wrong here, Yahshua is saying that without HIM personally declaring or making known the NAME to us that neither HE nor the FATHER dwells in us.

I say personally making known the NAME, because HE said 'I HAVE declared the NAME and will declare.

When Moses asked to see the Glory, YHVH declared HIS NAME.

When David wanted to build the temple, it was called the HOUSE FOR THE NAME.

Many years ago I shared this frequently in Tulsa Okla among the hyper Pauline crowd down there. Talk about putting stick in a hornets nest.

I remember the dean at ORU declaring that anyone using this NAME should be confined to a mental institution. I didn't attend ORU, this statement was made publicly.

So anyway back to the original point: Jn 17:26.

I used to tell folks that the first commandment actually begins with the NAME, 'I AM YHVH which brought you forth...

So what are your thoughts, is it possible for the Son to abide in anyone to whom HE has not yet declared the NAME.
Or if the NAME has not been declared by the Messiah then has the love of God been shed abroad in the heart?

Michael